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APMG-International AgilePM-Practitioner Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

People and Roles: In this section, the topics covered include various roles involved in an Agile project and how they relate to each other. The topics covered include the responsibilities of the Agile Project Manager, agile teams, and business owners.

Topic 2

Techniques: In this section, the topics covered various techniques that can be utilized including iterative development. Candidates are tested for their know-how of agile techniques and timeboxing.

Topic 3

Lifecycle and Products: This section of the exam covers topics such as Agile project lifecycle, various stages of the lifecycle, agile products, Vision Documents, and Prototypes.

Topic 4

Planning and Control: In this section, the exam covers planning and control of the project and vital concepts such as estimation and iterative strategy. It also covers how to utilize MoSCoW prioritization and mitigate any risks.

APMG-International Agile Project Management (AgilePM) Practitioner Exam Sample Questions (Q124-Q129):

NEW QUESTION # 124
During Timebox B, the 'Hoy for Hoy Hall'Action Group disagreed about the planned outcome of the Timebox. The Project Manager organised a Facilitated Workshop to re- engage this group and explore discrepancies in understanding.
Is this an appropriate application of Agile Project Management for this project?

A. Yes, because discussing requirements in the presence of other stakeholders increases the whole group's awareness.
B. Yes, because Facilitated Workshops provide a forum for each member of the team to present a short progress report.
C. No, because the Project Manager should have escalated this disagreement as an issue before any action was taken.
D. No, because the local Action Group should have attended the Daily Stand-up meetings.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 125
The Sales Manager is excited by the challenge to lead a pilot to upskill the sales team in the new capabilities. They will particularly enjoy coaching and spending time with team members.
Which preference does this behavior BEST display?

A. Thinking.
B. Feeling.
C. Extravert.
D. Introvert.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This question uses the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) framework, which identifies personality preferences based on four dichotomies. In this scenario, the Sales Manager's behavior reflects traits that align most closely with the Extraversion preference.
1. Why the Answer is Extravert (A):
* Extraverts gain energy from interacting with others and are motivated by teamwork, coaching, and engaging in group activities.
* The Sales Manager's enjoyment of spending time with team members and their enthusiasm for leading a pilot clearly demonstrates extraverted qualities.
* Extraverts typically thrive in environments where collaboration and communication are emphasized, which matches the described behavior.
2. Analysis of Other Options:
* Option B: Introvert
* Introverts are more reflective and gain energy from time spent alone or in quieter settings. They tend to prefer solitary work over group activities.
* The Sales Manager's enjoyment of coaching and team interaction does not align with introverted traits.
* Eliminate.
* Option C: Thinking
* The Thinking preference in MBTI is about making decisions based on logic and objective criteria. It does not directly relate to the enjoyment of coaching or spending time with team members.
* The scenario describes behavior that is more about interaction and energy from others rather than logical decision-making.
* Eliminate.
* Option D: Feeling
* The Feeling preference relates to decision-making that prioritizes values and empathy. While this could be partially relevant in a coaching context, the primary focus of the description is on enthusiasm for interaction and collaboration, which are hallmarks of extraversion.
* Eliminate.
3. Practical Example:
* An extraverted leader might enjoy hosting team workshops, facilitating discussions, or mentoring colleagues. Their energy comes from the collaborative process, just as the Sales Manager enjoys coaching and working directly with their team.
4. Reference to MBTI:
* Extraversion (E):
* Focused on the external world and interactions with others.
* Energized by group activities and collaboration.
* Introversion (I):
* Prefers reflection and solitary work.

NEW QUESTION # 126
As time goes by, there is an increase in Customer Services staff asking questions about how their skills development will be supported under the new structure and how they will influence decisions about the projects they will be assigned to work on.
Which is the MOST appropriate response from the Customer Service Director?

A. Define the approach and governance for the Customer Services projects.
B. Ask for the communications from the change teams to include the questions.
C. Support line leadership roles on how to include those asking the questions.
D. Prepare presentations to all staff outlining the targets for the new structure.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Context from the UniCo Scenario:
In a major organizational change like this, active staff involvement is critical to ensure alignment, engagement, and buy-in. Staff members' questions about skill development and project assignments indicate that they are invested in the success of the change but need direction and inclusion. Effective responses should empower leadership to address these concerns while fostering collaboration and clarity.
Analysis of Each Option:
* A. Prepare presentations to all staff outlining the targets for the new structure.
* Why Incorrect:While presentations can provide clarity, they are top-down communication and do not address staff engagement directly. This approach misses the opportunity to actively include staff in decision-making or skills development discussions.
* B. Support line leadership roles on how to include those asking the questions.
* Why Correct:Supporting line leaders ensures that the staff asking questions are actively involved in the process. Line leadership is typically closer to the teams and can effectively include their input in decision-making. This approach aligns with AgilePM principles of empowering teams and fostering collaboration at the operational level.
* C. Ask for the communications from the change teams to include the questions.
* Why Incorrect:While addressing these questions in communications is helpful, it does not provide a direct platform for staff engagement or influence. This approach risks being seen as a passive response rather than actively resolving concerns.
* D. Define the approach and governance for the Customer Services projects.
* Why Incorrect:Governance and structure are important, but this response focuses on technical aspects of project delivery rather than addressing staff engagement and their questions about skills development. It does not provide immediate reassurance or inclusion for staff concerns.
Why B Is Correct:
* Direct Engagement with Staff Concerns:
* By empowering line leadership, the Customer Services Director ensures that staff questions are addressed effectively and incorporated into decision-making. This creates a culture of collaboration and trust.
* Alignment with AgilePM Principles:
* AgilePM emphasizes empowered teams and engagement at the operational level to drive change successfully. Line leaders are well-positioned to address team concerns directly.
* Sustainable Solution:
* Supporting line leadership ensures ongoing responsiveness to staff concerns, rather than providing one-off presentations or communications.
References to AgilePM Framework:
* Empowered Teams:
* AgilePM stresses the role of line leaders in empowering their teams and ensuring effective collaboration. (AgilePM Practitioner Guide, Chapter 6: Empowered Teams)
* Stakeholder Engagement:
* AgilePM highlights that involving stakeholders directly in decision-making is critical to gaining buy-in and addressing concerns. (AgilePM Practitioner Guide, Chapter 8: Stakeholder Engagement)
* Sustained Engagement:
* Responses should aim to foster sustained staff engagement and involvement, not just one-time solutions. (AgilePM Practitioner Guide, Chapter 9: Delivering Value Early)

NEW QUESTION # 127
Using the information provided in the additional information, answer the following question on building a change analytics strategy.
Do the measures to be monitored by the Sales Director represent appropriate measures for assessing change readiness?

A. No, because change readiness should be monitored using the change programme plan.
B. No, because change readiness measures should consist of mostly quantitative measures.
C. Yes, because the Sales Director has identified measures that require new data sources.
D. Yes, because these metrics provide opinions collected via mostly qualitative methods.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
Context from the UniCo Scenario:
The Sales Director's metrics focus on assessing the readiness of the sales team to adapt to new systems, such as their confidence levels and ability to demonstrate mobile application features. This ensures that the team is prepared for the transformation UniCo is undertaking. Change readiness is often a combination of quantitative and qualitative insights, especially for understanding how prepared and skilled staff are to adopt the new processes.
Analysis of the Answer Options:
* A. No, because change readiness measures should consist of mostly quantitative measures.
* Why Incorrect:Change readiness measures are not limited to quantitative methods. Qualitative measures, such as surveys and confidence levels, are essential for evaluating readiness in transformation programs. By relying on both, the organization gets a more holistic understanding.
* B. No, because change readiness should be monitored using the change programme plan.
* Why Incorrect:The change program plan provides an overarching structure, but it is not the sole method for monitoring readiness. The Sales Director has appropriately identified new data sources and targeted measures (e.g., surveys), which are crucial for assessing readiness directly.
* C. Yes, because the Sales Director has identified measures that require new data sources.
* Why Correct:The Sales Director's plan involves surveys to gather fresh data, such as confidence levels and proficiency in new systems. These are leading indicators for change readiness and provide actionable insights into team preparedness. Using new data sources ensures the measures are tailored to the transformation objectives, making them appropriate for assessing readiness.
* D. Yes, because these metrics provide opinions collected via mostly qualitative methods.
* Why Incorrect:While qualitative methods such as surveys are used, this answer implies an over- reliance on qualitative data. Effective change readiness strategies should balance both qualitative (e.g., confidence levels) and quantitative (e.g., percentage of staff trained) insights.
Why C Is the Best Answer:
* Focus on Leading Indicators:
* The Sales Director's identified measures focus on readiness and forward-looking insights, such as proficiency and confidence, which are key aspects of preparing staff for the change.
* Incorporating New Data Sources:
* The use of surveys as new data sources ensures that the metrics are specific to the change initiative and capture real-time readiness levels, making them highly relevant.
* Alignment with AgilePM Principles:
* AgilePM emphasizes the importance of gathering real-time, actionable data to monitor progress and adapt strategies. The Sales Director's approach aligns with this principle by introducing targeted metrics for readiness.
References to AgilePM Framework:
* Change Readiness Assessment:
* AgilePM highlights the importance of continuously assessing readiness to ensure teams can adapt and contribute effectively to change programs. (AgilePM Practitioner Guide, Chapter 7:
Governance and Control)
* Combining Data Sources:
* Balancing qualitative and quantitative methods is a best practice for ensuring that readiness measures are comprehensive and actionable. (AgilePM Practitioner Guide, Chapter 11:
Measuring Success)

NEW QUESTION # 128
Using the Project Scenario, answer the following question about the activities in the Agile project lifecycle.
Lines 1 to 5 in the table below consist of an assertion statement and a reason statement. For each line identify the appropriate option, from options A to E, that applies. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

Assertion:-
1. The rooms and facilities must be deployed into live use at the end of each Timebox.
BECAUSE
Reason:
Evolutionary Development and Deployment must be combined in a Timebox where the integration of several teams is required.
2. The tasks associated with each Solution Development Timebox should be included in the Delivery Plan.
BECAUSE
Reason:
A typical Delivery Plan will provide a schedule of Timeboxes and any other high level activities for the imminent Project Increment.
3. The development approach should have been agreed during Foundations.
BECAUSE
Reason:
The Development Approach Definition must be created before Evolutionary Development can commence.
4. The resources from Timber Tigers and Earth Excavations should have been engaged before the start of Evolutionary Development.
BECAUSE
Reason:
Commitment to delivery is based on pre-agreed resource levels at the project level.
5. A final Deployment phase should be held after Timebox C has completed.
BECAUSE
Reason:
The Deployed Solution is assessed post-project to confirm whether the expected benefits have been achieved.

Answer:

Explanation:

Explanation:
Agile Practitioner
For each line, here is the appropriate option from A to E that applies:
* The rooms and facilities must be deployed into live use at the end of each Timebox.
* D. False (Assertion) True (Reason)
* Rationale: While Evolutionary Development and Deployment can be combined in a timebox, it is not necessary that the rooms and facilities must be deployed into live use at the end of each timebox. Deployment into live use typically occurs after several timeboxes when the product is ready for release.
* The tasks associated with each Solution Development Timebox should be included in the Delivery Plan.
* A. True (Assertion) True (Reason)
* Rationale: The Delivery Plan should outline the schedule of timeboxes and include the high-level activities planned for the upcoming project increment, which encompasses the tasks for each Solution Development Timebox.
* The development approach should have been agreed during Foundations.
* A. True (Assertion) True (Reason)
* Rationale: The development approach is indeed something that should be agreed upon during the Foundations phase, as the Development Approach Definition sets the stage for how Evolutionary Development will proceed.
* The resources from Timber Tigers and Earth Excavations should have been engaged before the start of Evolutionary Development.
* C. True (Assertion) False (Reason)
* Rationale: It is true that resources should be engaged before Evolutionary Development starts to ensure commitment and resource availability. However, the commitment is typically based on the detailed planning and agreements made during Foundations, not solely on pre-agreed resource levels at the project level.
* A final Deployment phase should be held after Timebox C has completed.
* E. False (Assertion) False (Reason)
* Rationale: Deployment phases are usually not a one-time, final phase but occur incrementally as part of the timeboxed development. Additionally, the assessment of whether the expected benefits have been achieved is part of the benefits realization process and not necessarily the sole reason to have a final Deployment phase post-Timebox C.

NEW QUESTION # 129
......

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